POLITY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION 2011-2020 TOICWISE COMPLETE

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SURE SHOT DECODING OF POLITY PRELIM PYQ


SURE SHOT POLITY TOPICS:

1.PARLIAMENT (2011-2020 )

2.JUDICIARY (2011-2020 )

3.FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS (2011-2020 )FRs:

4. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES(2011-2020 )

5. DPSP (2011-2020 )

6.PREAMBLE(2011-2020 )

7.PANCHAYAT/LOCAL GOVERNMENTS/PRI (2011-2020 ):

8.SCHEDULES OF CONSTITUTION(2011-2020 )

9. HISTORICAL BACKGROUND OF CONSTITUTION(2011-2020 )

10. FORM OF GOVERNMENTS(2011-2020 )

11. CITIZENSHIP(2011-2020 )

12. CENTRE – STATE / INTER STATE RELATION(2011-2020 )

13. PRESIDENT/ GOVERNOR/EMERGENCY PROVISION(2011-2020 )

14. VICE PRESIDENT(2011-2020 )

15. PRIME/CHIEF MINISTER(2011-2020 )

16. STATE LEGISLATURE/ STATE COUNCIL(2011-2020 )

17. CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES (2011-2020 )

18. NON CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES (2011-2020 )

19.FEDERALISM:2011-2020

20. MISCLLENOUS: 2011-2020


1.PARLIAMENT (2011-2020 )

1. Consolidated Fund of India

2. Union Budget

3.No-Confidence Motion

4.Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

5.joint sitting

6.Lok Sabha Speake

7.Parliamentary control over public finance

8.Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha

9.Parliamentary Committee

10.Money Bill

11.Bill pending

12.Office of Profit

13.Member of Parliament Local Area Development(MPLADS)Scheme

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1. Consolidated Fund of India

2011

  1. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

(a) The President of India

(b) The Parliament of India

(c) The Prime Minister of India

(d) The Union Finance Minister

ANS:b

 

2. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the

(a) Contingency Fund of India

(b) Public Account

(c) Consolidated Fund of India

(d) Deposits and Advances Fund

ANS: c

 

2020:

34. Consider the following statements

  1. Aadhar metadata can not be stored for more than three months
  2. State can not enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data
  3. Aadhar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products
  4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the consolidated fund of India

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: B

S1: Aadhaar authentication data can’t be retained beyond 6 months, said Supreme Court, see https://www.financialexpress.com/aadhaar-card/aadhaar-authentication-data-cant-be-retained-beyond-6-months-says-supreme-court/1328066/

S2: This is correct, see the SC judgment here https://sflc.in/key-highlights-aadhaar-judgment This was done in order to protect a citizen’s right to privacy.

S3: IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India) has clarified that Aadhaar is not required to buy an insurance policy.

S4: Correct, see https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/aadhaar-for-welfare-schemes-a-legitimate-exercise-says-supreme-court/story-rhb0kccKthpJRNnSvukzmO.html

 

2. Union Budget

3. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,

(a) the Budget is modified and presented again

(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions

(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign

(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

ANS: d

2011

4. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?

1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.

2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS: b

2014:

17. Consider the following statements:

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

a

2015:

21. With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation
of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India
without the authorization of Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the Authorization
from the Parliament of India

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: c)

The constitution establishes three types of funds – Consolidated Fund of India; Public Account; Contingency Fund.
Prior authorization is required for withdrawing from Consolidated Fund of India. For Contingency fund of India, withdrawal can be authorized by the Parliament afterwards too. For Public Account, no such authorization is needed.
Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs).
The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs. The Finance Secretary coordinates the overall Budget-making process

 

 

3.Motions of parliament:

2012:

5. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers

(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant

(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour  on the part of some members.

ANS: a

2014:

16. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.

2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b) 2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

c

 

4.Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

Q7. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.

2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.

3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

b

 

2012:

9.Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State.

(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services.

(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement.

(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and determine the number of Election Commissioners.

b

2012:

10. Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.

2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.

3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None

d

2013:

11. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.

2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

b

2013:

15. Consider the following statements:

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.

2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

d

 

2017:

25. Consider the following statements:

  1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
  2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:D

Statement 1 is not correct. In election for lok sabha and state assembly, the first past the post system is followed where a candidate who polls more votes than any other candidate is elected.

Statement 2 is incorrect. As per the constitution, the speaker and deputy speaker in lok sabha are elected among its members.

 

 

2017:

Q.26  For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

(a)anyone residing in India.

(b)a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(c)any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

(d)any citizen of India.

ANS:C

Qualifications for election to Lok Sabha: – must be a citizen of India – not less than 25 years of age – must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency

2018:

27.  Consider the following statements:

 

  1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly.
  2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:A

2018:

2018:

30. Consider the following statements:

 

  1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the SwatantraParty
  2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
  3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only

(b)2 only

(c)2 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

ANS:B

2020:

Q35. Rajyasabha has equal power with Loksabha in

(a) The matter of creating new all India services

(b) Amending the constitution

(c) The removal of the government

(d) Making cut motions

Answer: B

5.sittings OF PARLIAMENT

2012:

6. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation

2. Money Bill

3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

a

2012:

 

2015:

 19. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by
a) a simple majority of member present and voting
b) three-fourths majority of member present and voting
c) two-thirds majority of the House
d) absolute majority of the House
Solution: a)

Such a sitting is summoned by the President to settle a deadlock between the two Houses on a bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority i.e. majority of the number of members present and voting.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 22 (Parliament)

 

33. Consider the following statements:

  1. The president of India can summon a session of parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
  2. The constitution of India provides for three sessions of the parliament in a year but it is not mandatory to conduct all the sessions
  3. There is no minimum number of days that the parliament is required to meet in a year

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: C

S1 and S2: Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one Session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next Session.

S3: This is correct, refer to the explanation above.

http://legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/coi-4March2016.pdf

 

 

6.Lok Sabha Speake

7.Parliamentary control over public finance

2012:

8. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament.

2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.

3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account.

4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.

5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

a

23. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

 

  1. Adjournment motion
  2. Questions hour
  3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

ANS:D

The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no confidence motion, etc.

A Private Member’s bill is introduced by any member of Parliament other than a minister. Its introduction in the House requires one month’s notice. Its drafting is the responsibility of the member concerned.

 

The last Private Member’s Bill passed by parliament was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968, which became an act on August 9, 1970. The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill, 2014, passed by the Rajya Sabha on Friday is the first private member’s bill to get the ujpper house’s approval in the past 45 years.

 

2019:

31. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance electricity, etc.?

1.      Ad Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament.

2.      Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee

3.      Finance Commission

4.      Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

5.      NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2

(b)1, 3 and 4

(c)3, 4 and 5

(d)2 and 5

ANS:A

 

 

8.Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha:

2013:

12. Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.

2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.

3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

b

 

 

9.Parliamentary Committee

2013:

13. Consider the following statements:

The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.

2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.

3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

b

2014:

18.Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(a) The committee on Public Accounts.

(b) The committee on Estimates

(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) The committee on Petition

b

2018:

29. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scruitinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

 

(a)Committee on Government Assurances

(b)Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(c)Rules Committee

(d)Business Advisory Committee

ANS:B

 

10.Money Bill/Bill pending

2013:

16. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.

(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further.

(c)The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration.

(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill.

a

2015:

20. Consider the following statements :
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)

Only the Lok Sabha can vote on the demand for grants.
Rajya Sabha can only keep a money bill for not more than 14 days, before which the bill should be either returned to Lok Sabha with recommendations, or passed by the Rajya Sabha. In case of a disagreement between both the houses, the bill is deemed passed in the form it was passed by Lok Sabha.
Every year the budget (annual financial statement as mentioned in the constitution) is discussed by the Rajya Sabha.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 22 (Parliament)

 

2016:

22. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
  2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Justification: Prorogation does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House.

It is the pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session. So, 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).

  • A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
  • A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
  • A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse
  • So, 2 is correct.

Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

2017:

24. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

  1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
  2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:D

 

2018

28. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

 

(a)A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

(b)A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

(c)A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

(d)A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

ANS:C

 

 

12.Office of Profit

 

2019

32. Consider the following statements:

1.      The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.

2.      The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3.      The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)3 only

(c)2 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

ANS:A

2020:

 

13.Member of Parliament Local Area Development(MPLADS)Scheme

Q36. With reference to the funds under Member of Parliament Local Area Development(MPLADS)Scheme, which of the following statements are correct?

  1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education etc.
  2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations
  3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on an annual basis and the unused funds can not be carried forward to the next year.
  4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation

Select the correct answer using the given code below-

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2  and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: D

S1 and S2: These are correct. See https://mplads.gov.in/MPLADS/UploadedFiles/MPLADSGuidelines2016English_638.pdf

S3: Funds can be carried forward. Funds released to the District Authority by the Government of India are therefore non-lapsable. Funds left in the district can be carried forward for utilization in the subsequent years. Further, the funds not released by the Government of India in a year will be carried forward for making releases in the subsequent years

S4: This is correct. The District Authority would be responsible for overall coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. The District Authority should involve the MPs in the inspections of projects to the extent feasible.

 


2.JUDICIARY (2011-2020 )

2012

Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

  1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.
  2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State.
  3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory.
  4. A dispute between two or more States.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

c

 

What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointment the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.

2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.

3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.

4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

a

 

2013:

With reference to National Legal Services Authority consider the following statements:

1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.

2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

c

2014:

The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in?

(a) The President of India.

(b) the Parliament.

(c) The Chief Justice of India.

(d) the Law Commissio.

b

2014:

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(a)advisory jurisdiction

(b)appellate jurisdiction

(c)original jurisdiction

(d)writ jurisdiction

c

2015:

Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?
a) The President of India
b) The Prime Minister of India
c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
d) The Supreme Court of India
Solution: d (As per the whims of UPSC!)

2016:

With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
  2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Statement 1: It tries both Civil and Criminal cases. So, 1 is wrong.

Statement 2: We are quoting from the Gram Nyalayas Act, 2008

“27. (1) For the purposes of section 26, the District Court shall, in consultation with the Appointment District Magistrate, prepare a panel consisting of the names of social workers at the village level having integrity for appointment as Conciliators who possess such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed by the High Court.”

So, clearly 2 is correct.

 

2017:

In India, Judicial Review implies

 

(a)the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b)the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(c)the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

(d)the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases

ANS:A

Judicial review is the power of judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and state governments. On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultra-vires), they can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and viod). Consequently, they cannot be enforced by the government. The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in a high court or supreme court on the following three grounds: (a) it infringes the fundamental rights (Part III), (b) it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and (c) it is repugant to the constitutional provisions.

2019:

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1.      No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2.      An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:D

2019:

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibition or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a)The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b)The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

(c)In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

(d)State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

ANS:B

2019:

Consider the following statements:

1.      The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2.      The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:B

 

Consider the following statements:

1.      The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of Indian cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

2.      The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

3.      The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

4.      If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2

(b)3 only

(c)3 and 4 only

(d)1, 3 and 4

ANS:C

2020:

Consider the following statements

  1. The constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy
  2. The constitution of India provides for the ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizen’s liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

S1: The Supreme Court has defined the Basic structure, not the Constitution, so S1 is wrong.

S2: Straightforward – Articles 13 of the Constitution,

 

2020:

In India, separation of judiciary from executive is enjoined by

(a) The preamble of the constitution

(b) The directive principles of state policy

(c) The seventh schedule

(d) The conventional practice

Answer: B

 

2020:

In India, legal service authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?

  1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
  2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs2,00,000
  3. Member of other backward classes(OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs 3,00,000
  4. All senior citizens

Select the correct answer using the given code below-

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: A

S1 and S3: The sections of the society as enlisted under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act are entitled for free legal services, they are :

(a) A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe;

(b) A victim of trafficking in human beings or begar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution;

(c) A woman or a child;

(d) A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person;

(e) A person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster; or

(f) An industrial workman; or

(g) In custody, including custody in a protective home within the meaning of clause (g) of Section 2 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956(104 of 1956); or in a juvenile home within the meaning of clause(j) of Section 2 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 1986 (53 of 1986); or in a psychiatric hospital or psychiatric nursing home within the meaning of clause (g) of Section 2 of the Mental Health Act, 1987(14 of 1987);or

(h) a person in receipt of annual income less than the amount mentioned in the following schedule (or any other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Government), if the case is before a Court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs 5 Lakh, if the case is before the Supreme Court.

The Income Ceiling Limit prescribed u/S 12(h) of the Act for availing free legal services in different States has been stated here https://nalsa.gov.in/faqs

S2: Limit for Transgender – Rs. 2,00,000 see https://nalsa.gov.in/faqs

S4: Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard.

In Delhi for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to prescribed ceiling of annual income. Any individual above the age of 60 can apply for free legal aid/services.


3.FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS (2011-2020 )FRs:

2012

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.

2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1).

3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A).

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

a

2012:

CONSUMER RIGHTS:

With reference to consumers’ rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.

2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.

3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

c

 

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy.

2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies.

3. Fifth Schedule

4. Sixth Schedule

5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)1 and 2 only

(b) 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

d

2016:

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(b)Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.

(c)Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

(d)Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

ANS:C

Rights are legal and moral entitlements or claims of a person over other fellow beings, over society and over the government.

2017:

In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

 

(a)Rights are correlative with Duties.

(b)Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

(c)Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.

(d)Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

ANS:A

Rights are what we want others to do for us whereas the duties are those acts which we should perform for others. Thus, a right comes with an obligation to show respect for the rights of others. The obligations that accompany rights are in the form of duties.

2017:

 

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

  1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
  2. Abolition of untouchability
  3. Protection of the interests of minorities
  4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, 2 and 4 only

(b)2, 3 and 4 only

(c)1 and 4 only

(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

ANS:C

RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION includes Article 23 & 24 of the Indian Constitution.

 

Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also against private persons.

Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other hazardous activities like construction work or railway. But it does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work.

 

2018:

 

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

 

(a)Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(b)Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

(c)Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

(d)Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

ANS:C

The SC in the case of KS Puttaswamy and others vs Union of India and others that ‘Right to Privacy’ is an integral part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed in Article 21 of the Constitution. It added that the right to privacy is intrinsic to the entire fundamental rights chapter of the Constitution. Hence, the correct answer is (c).

 

2018:

Consider the following statements:

 

  1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
  2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
  3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2

(b)2 only

(c)1 and 3

(d)3 only

ANS:B

 

The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?

 

  1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
  2. Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:C

 

Consider the following statements:

 

  1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
  2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:D

 

2019:

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

(a)Article 19

(b)Article 21

(c)Article 25

(d)Article 29

ANS:B

2020:

Q34. Which of the following categories of Fundamental Rights Incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

(a) Right against exploitation

(b) Right to freedom

(c) Right to Constitutional remedies

(d) Right to equality

Answer: D

 


4. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES(2011-2020 )

2011

Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

(a) To vote in public elections

(b) To develop the scientific temper

(c) To safeguard public property

(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

a

 

2012

Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice.

3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.

4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

c

2015;

“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
a) Preamble of the Constitution
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Rights
d) Fundamental Duties
Solution: d)

It has been mentioned in Article 51-A of the Constitution (Fundamental Duties)

 

Consider the following statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
2. The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)

The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40 (with some exceptions).
The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 29 (State Legislatures)

2017:

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

 

  1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
  2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:D

There is no legislative process provided to enforce the Fundamental duties and they are not correlative to legal duties. Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also non-justiciable. The Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover, there is no legal sanction against their violation.

 

 


5. DPSP (2011-2020 )

 

2012:

Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code.

2. Organizing village Panchayats.

3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.

4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities.

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b

2013:

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Fundamental Duties

(c) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

c

2013:

“Economic Justice” as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitutional has been provided in

(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights.

(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy.

(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy.

(d) None of the above

b

2014:

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the?

(a) Preamble to the constitution.

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy.

(c) Fundamental Duties.

(d) Ninth Schedule.

b

2015:

Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given below are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)

Socio-economic democracy is spelt out because it provides for the idea of a welfare state. For e.g. consider Article 39 (b) and (c) which provide for minimizing inequalities in income and wealth; and ensuring that the wealth is not concentrated in the hands of few. While other article provide for the health of children, rights of working women etc.
DPSP is not enforceable by courts. Only Fundamental rights can be enforced by the courts.

 

2015:

The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
a) Preamble
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Rights
d) Seventh Schedule
Solution: b)

In a welfare State, the functions of the State are not only the defence of the country or administration of justice or maintaining law and order but it extends to regulating and controlling the activities of the people in almost every sphere—educational, commercial, social, economic, political and even marital.
DPSP thus promotes the ideal of a welfare state as it guides the state in making policies for the socio-economic well being of the people of India.
Preamble, option A, will NOT be the answer because it simply lists the socio-economic objectives of Indian society. It does not tell us who will design or execute policies based on the objectives.

2016:

Consider the following statements:

 

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

  1. legislative function.
  2. executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:D

Directive Principles of state policy cannot act as constraints/limitations on the government because they are not enforceable and they are fundamental to the governance of a country. Fundamental Rights operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature.

 

2016:

Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

 

(a)Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b)Participation of workers in the management of industries

(c)Right to work, education and public assistance

(d)Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

ANS:B

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:

 

1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).

2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).

3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).

4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).

 

2020:

Q22. Which part of the constitution of India declares the ideals of welfare state?

(a) Directive Principles of State policy

(b) Fundamental Rights

(c) Preamble

(d) Seventh schedule

Answer: A

2020:

With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the Constitution of India, Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. They shall be enforceable by the courts
  2. They shall not be enforceable by any courts
  3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state.

Select the correct answer using the given code below-

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: D

 


6.PREAMBLE(2011-2020 )

 

2016:

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

(a)Privileges

(b)Restraints

(c)Competition

(d)Ideology

ANS:A

The term ‘equality’ means the absence of special privileges to any section of the society, and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination.

 

2017:

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

 

(a)The Preamble

(b)The Fundamental Rights

(c)The Directive Principles of State Policy

(d)The Fundamental Duties

ANS:A

In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution.

 

2017:

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

 

(a)Liberty of thought

(b)Economic liberty

(c)Liberty of expression

(d)Liberty of belief

ANS:B

The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, through their Fundamental Rights, enforceable in court of law, in case of violation.

 

The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in our Preamble have been taken from the French Revolution (1789–1799)

 

2019:

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a)Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b)Absence of restraint

(c)Opportunity to do whatever one likes

(d)Opportunity to develop oneself fully

ANS:B

 

2020:

The preamble to the constitution of India is

(a) A part of the constitution but has no legal effect

(b) Not a part of the constitution and has no legal effect either

(c) A part of the constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part

(d) A part of the constitution but has no legal effect independently of other part.

Answer: D 

It is a part of the Constitution as declared by the SC. It certaintly does not have a legal effect independently since it cannot be enforced in a court of law.

Although not enforceable in court on its own (option C is wrong), the Preamble states the objects of the Constitution, and acts as an aid during the interpretation of Articles when language is found ambiguous. Therefore, it begets some kind of legal effect when read alongwith the constitution, not independent from it. Option D is more appropriate.

 


 

 


7.PANCHAYAT/LOCAL GOVERNMENTS/PRI (2011-2020 ):

2011:

The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act. 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.

3. Establishment of state Finance Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

c

 

Consider the following statements: In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee :

1. is constituted under the provisions of the constitution of India.

2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.

3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS:a

 

2012:

How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

  1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
  2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
  3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
  4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANS: b

2013:

2012:

In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.

2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.

3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting lincence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

b

2013:

Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

(a) State Forest Department

(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

(c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer

(d) Gram Sabha

d

2013:

The Government enacted, the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

(a) To provided self-governance

(b) To recognize traditional rights

(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas

(d) To free tribal people from exploitation

c

2015:

The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: c)

There is some dispute about the answers. Some claim the answer to be A, some C and some D.
We accept that there is some subjectivity inherent in the options. However, the question can be solved on objective basis.
Statement 4 is INCORRECT because financial mobilization was never the basis for the establishment of panchayati raj. Local financial mobilization (by way of octroi taxes etc. ) is the outcome of the establishment of the PRIs, not its objective. In fact, only few states have devolved financial powers to their PRIs.
Statement 3 is also INAPPROPRIATE in the context of the question. Reasons are:
• Political accountability can be ensured in any system which is democratic/rule-based, it need not necessarily be via a local body.
• Grass-roots democracy was established in India not to ensure any political accountability, but to ensure citizen’s participation in governance leading to democratic decentralization. So, the term “democratic decentralization” is an appropriate replacement for the term “political accountability”.
• Moreover, political accountability already existed in the villages by way of elections to State legislatures. What has happened after 1993 is that it has only become easier to hold the representatives accountable. It is always easier to approach someone next door (ward councilor) than next district (MP or MLA/MLC).

In Karnataka, elections to Grama Panchayats are held on apolitical basis i.e. members are not elected from political party tickets.

 

2016:

Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

 

(a)Federalism

(b)Democratic decentralisation

(c)Administrative delegation

(d)Direct democracy

ANS:B

In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

 

 

Consider the following statements:

  1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
  2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Justification: Statement 1: It is 21 years, so 1 is wrong.

Statement 2: A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution (i.e., before the expiry of the full period of five years) shall continue only for the remainder of the period. But if the remainder of the period is less than six months it shall not be necessary to hold elections.

http://www.tn.gov.in/fsfc/Const%20Amend%2073.htm

 


8.SCHEDULES OF CONSTITUTION(2011-2020 )

2014:

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

(a) Second Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(c) Eighth Schedule

(d) Tenth Schedule

d

2015:

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
b) determine the boundaries between states
c) determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
d) protect the interests of all the border States
Solution: a)

 

2018;

 

Consider the following statements:

 

  1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:A

2019:

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a)Jawaharlal Nehru

(b)Lal Bahadur Shastri

(c)Indira Gandhi

(d)Morarji Desai

ANS:A

2019:

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a)Third Schedule

(b)Fifth Schedule

(c)Ninth Schedule

(d)Twelfth Schedule

ANS:B

 


9. HISTORICAL BACKGROUND OF CONSTITUTION(2011-2020 )

 

2012:

Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces.

2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims.

3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the provinces.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

c

2013:

With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were

(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces.

(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.

(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.

(d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters.

c

 

2014:

The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from?

(a) Katha Upanishad

(b) Chandogra Upanishad

(c) Aitareya Upanishad

(d) Mundaka Upanishad

d

2015:

The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
a) the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
b) the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
c) the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
d) None of the above
Solution: b)

It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. The central and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be centralised and unitary.
It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved which is what we know as diarchy.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 1 (Historical Background)

2015:

With reference to cabinet mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It recommended a federal government.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None
Solution: a)

 

2018:

Consider the following events:

 

  1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
  2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
  3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
  4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

(a)4 – 1 – 2 – 3

(b)3 – 2 – 1 – 4

(c)4 – 2 – 1 – 3

(d)3 – 1 – 2 – 4

ANS:B

01-08-1953 Air India nationalised and becomes India’s national carrier 01-07-1955 India’s largest bank Imperial Bank of India renamed as State Bank of India 05-04-1957 First democratically elected Communist Party government outside Europe gets to power in Kerala with CPI leader EMS Namboodiripad as the Chief Minister 19-12-1961 Goa is officially ceded to India after 400 years of Portuguese rule.

 

2018:

 

In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

 

(a)Federal Legislature

(b)Governor General

(c)Provincial Legislature

(d)Provincial Governors

ANS:B

 


10. FORM OF GOVERNMENTS(2011-2020 )

2013:

In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are, implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.

2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.

3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

a

2014:

Consider the following statements :

 

A Constitutional Government is one which

1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.

2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS: b

2015:

There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
b) Parliament can amend the constitution
c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Solution: d)

Option A points to a democratic system. It does not necessarily mean a Parliamentary Democratic system. For e.g. in USA the Congress is also elected, but it is a Presidential Democracy.
Option D is correct because “Collective responsibility” of the council of ministers to the Lok Sabha (Article 75) lies at the heart of a Parliamentary democracy.
Source: Laxmikanth – Indian Polity – Chapter 12 (Parliamentary System)

 

2017:

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of governments is that

(a)the executive and legislature work independently.

(b)it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(c)the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

(d)the head of the government cannot be changed without election

ANS:C

The Parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’model of government, responsible government and cabinet government.

The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.

The features of parliamentary government in India are: (a) Presence of nominal and real executives;

(b) Majority party rule,

(c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,

(d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature,

(e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,

(f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

 

2017:

 

Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

(a)An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out the satisfaction of all.

(b)A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(c)A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people

(d)A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

ANS:C

The Parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ model of government, responsible government and cabinet government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states. The features of parliamentary government in India are: (a) Presence of nominal and real executives; (b) Majority party rule, (c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, (d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature, (e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, (f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

 

2019:

Q21. A parliamentary system of government is one which

(a) All political parties in the parliament are represented in the government

(b) The government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

(c) The government is elected by the people and can be removed by them

(d) The government is chosen by the parliament but can not be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Answer: B

This is obvious since people don’t remove the government (option C), it is the Parliament that can remove the government.

 

2020:

A constitutional government by definition is a

(a) Government by legislature

(b) Popular government

(c) Multi party government

(d) Limited government

Answer: D

A constitutional government may not have legislature, could be a bi-party government and need not be a popular government and can instead be a monarchy. All except D are incorrect


11. CITIZENSHIP(2011-2020 )


12. CENTRE – STATE / INTER STATE RELATION(2011-2020 )

2012

The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919

(c) Government of India Act, 1935

(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

c

 

2013:

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties

(a) with the consent of all the States

(b) with the consent of the majority of States

(c) with the consent of the States concerned

(d) without the consent of any State

d

2016:

  1. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Solution: D

Justification: If Rajya Sabha approves a resolution with special majority and declares that a subject is of national interest, the Parliament can make a law on the particular subject in the state list (7th Schedule).

Source: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

 

2017:

The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to

(a)Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.

(b)Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.

(c)Impose censorship on national press.

(d)Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

ANS:D

The Report of the Butler Committee on the relations between the Indian States and British India . The Committee advise that the Viceroy (instead of the Governor-General in Council) should represent the Crown in all dealings with the States. This proposed change is comparable with the new Imperial arrangement by which the Governor-General of a Dominion is High Commissioner for the Dominion’s Protectorates. The Committee sympathize with the fear of the Native Princes that their States might pass without their consent under a new Government in British India responsible to an Indian Legislature, and they plainly express the opinion that no such transference should be made without the consent of the Princes.

 

 


of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months.

(b) need not necessarily be a member of

13. PRESIDENT/ GOVERNOR/EMERGENCY PROVISION(2011-2020 )

2012:

According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendation of the Union Finance Commission.

2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee.

3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General.

4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

c

2013:

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.

(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.

(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post.

(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.

c

2014:

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule

2. Appointing the Ministers

3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India

4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b

2015:

Consider the following statements :
1. The Executive Power of the union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)

Executive power of the Union of India is vested in the President of India.
Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cabinet_Secretary_of_India

2017;

 

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

  1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
  2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
  3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)1 and 3 only

(c)2 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

ANS:B

When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President. This is the reason why a proclamation under Article 356 is popularly known as the imposition of ‘President’s Rule’ in a state. Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly.The Parliament passes the state legislative bills and the state budget. The President’s Rule doesnot lead to dissolution of local bodies. Hence, the answer is 1 and 3 only.

 

2018:

 

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution of a particular State, then

 

(a)the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b)the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(c)Article 19 is suspended in that State.

(d)the President can make laws relating to that State.

ANS:B

2018:

 

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

 

  1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
  2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:A

 


14. VICE PRESIDENT(2011-2020 )

 


15. PRIME/CHIEF MINISTER(2011-2020 )

 

2012:

The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment

(a) need not necessarily be a member  one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months.

(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament.

(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha.

a


16. STATE LEGISLATURE/ STATE COUNCIL(2011-2020 )

2019:

With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

1.      The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.

2.      When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

ANS:C


17. CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES (2011-2020 )

FINANCE COMMISSION: 2011

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development.

(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings .

(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration.

(d) None of the statements (a ), (b ) and (c ) given above is correct in this context.

ANS:d

DELIMITATION COMMISSION :2012

In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.

2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.

3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.

4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

c

 

2013:

Consider the following statements:

Attorney General of India can:

 

  1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
  2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
  3. speak in the Lok Sabha
  4. vote in the Lok Sabha

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

ANS:C

2017:

 

Consider the following statements:

 

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
  2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)2 only

(c)2 and 3 only

(d)3 only

ANS:D

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

 

(a)Fundamental Right

(b)Natural Right

(c)Constitutional Right

(d)Legal Righ

ANS:D

ccording to Supreme Court judgement Jyoti Basu vs Debi Ghosal – A right to elect, fundamental though it is to democracy, is, anomalously neither a fundamental right nor a Common Law Right. It is a statutory right. So is the right to be elected, and the right to dispute an election.

 

***NOTE – As per NCERT

One of the important decisions of the framers of the Indian Constitution was to guarantee every adult citizen in India, the right to vote i.e. universal adult franchise. The Article 326 of the Constitution provides for the right to vote and to be elected in India. What is true of the right to vote is also true of right to contest election. All citizens have the right to stand for election and become the representative of the people.

 

2020:

Consider the following statements

  1. According to Constitution of India, A person who eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of the legislature of that state
  2. According to the representation of people act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for at least five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

(If one overthinks the answer could be ‘D’ – overthinking that Voter eligibility is not mentioned in the Constitution and Age 25 is not mentioned. As you know UPSC doesn’t reward overthinking. Here the question is related to checking the concept rather than fact)

S1: Not quite technically true, since one who is eligible to vote isn’t necessarily eligible to be a Minister (for e.g. on grounds of age). But, since UPSC has used the term a voter “can” and not “every voter”, S1 is correct since many voters who meet the eligibility to be a Member of Parliament can be made a Minister.

For e.g. here are few correct and incorrect statements:

CORRECT: A voter CAN become a minister for six months.

CORRECT: A voter eligible to become a Member of Parliament CAN become a minister for six months.

CORRECT: Every voter that is eligible to become a Member of Parliament CAN become a minister for six months.

First statement is only part of a larger correct statement, still true.

INOCRRECT: EVERY voter can become a minister for six months.

S2: Specifically, Section 8 of RPA, 1951 states the grounds for disqualification on conviction of certain offences pursuant to Section 8 of RPA, 1951, in case the candidate is convicted of certain offences specified under sub-section (1) (2) (3) of Sec. 8 and sentenced to indicated fine or imprisonment, then such a candidate is disqualified from being a member of either house of Parliament or State Legislature from the date of such conviction till the stated time. This is not permanent, so S2 is wrong.

 


18. NON CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES (2011-2020 )

Human Rights:

2011

Consider the following:

1. Right to education.

2. Right to equal access to public service.

3. Right to food.

Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANS: d

 

2012:

Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

1. The Prime Minister

2. The Chairman, Finance Commission

3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet

4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b

2012:

Which reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.

2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

c

 

2013:

Consider the following statements:

1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.

2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.

3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

b

 

2013:

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

1. National Development Council

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

d

2015:

The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
a) Human Rights Commission
b) Finance Commission
c) Law Commission
d) Planning Commission
Solution: d)

2019:

Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

(a)Department of Science and Technology

(b)Ministry of Labour and Employment

(c)NITI Aayog

(d)Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

ANS:C

 

2020:

Other than the fundamental rights , Which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal declaration of human rights(1948)?

  1. Preamble
  2. Directive principles of state policy
  3. Fundamental duties

Select the correct answer using the given code below-

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

If you overread the question, you might exclude S3 from the answer, but this will be incorrect.

S1: e.g. from UDHR: Article 3. Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person.

S2: eg. Article 22 UDHR: Everyone, as a member of society, has the right to social security and is entitled to realization, through national effort and international co-operation and in accordance with the organization and resources of each State, of the economic, social and cultural rights indispensable for his dignity and the free development of his personality.

Or, Article 26:

(1) Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of merit.

S3: e.g. Article 27 of UDHR:

(1) Everyone has the right freely to participate in the cultural life of the community, to enjoy the arts and to share in scientific advancement and its benefits.

(2) Everyone has the right to the protection of the moral and material interests resulting from any scientific, literary or artistic production of which he is the author.

See https://www.un.org/en/universal-declaration-human-rights/

 


19. FEDERALISM:(2011-2020)

 

2011

In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?

1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.

2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.

3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

c

2014:

Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

  1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings.
  2. Secretariat assistance to Cabinet Committees.
  3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

c

EXPLANATION:

  • The Cabinet Secretariat is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
  • The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961, facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/Departments of the Government by ensuring adherence to these rules.
  • The Cabinet Secretariat ensures that the President, the Vice President and Ministers are kept informed of the major activities of all Ministries/Departments by means of monthly summary of their activities. Management of major crisis situations in the country and coordinating activities of various Ministries in such a situation is also one of the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat.

The secretarial assistance provided by Cabinet Secretariat to the Cabinet and Cabinet committees, includes:

  1. Convening of the meetings of the Cabinet on the orders of the Prime Minister.
  2. Preparation and circulation of the agenda.
  3. Circulating papers related to the cases on the agenda.
  4. Preparing a record of discussions taken.
  5. Circulation of the record after obtaining the approval of the Prime Minister.
  6. Watching implementation of the decisions taken by the Cabinet.

The Cabinet Secretariat is the custodian of the papers of the Cabinet meetings.

The Cabinet Secretariat is seen as a useful mechanism by the departments for promoting inter-Ministerial coordination since the Cabinet Secretary is also the head of the civil services. While each Ministry is responsible for acting on its own for expeditious implementation of Government policies, plans and programmes, where inter-Ministerial cooperation is involved, they often seek the assistance of the Cabinet Secretariat. The inter-Ministerial problems are dealt with in the meetings of the Committees of Secretaries (COS). Committees are constituted for discussing specific matters and proposals emanating from various Secretaries to the Government and meetings are held under the chairmanship of the Cabinet Secretary. These committees have been able to break bottlenecks or secure mutually supporting inter-Ministerial action. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • Alllocation of financial resources is done by the Finance Ministry in consonance with the priorities presented in the budget.

2016:

Consider the following statements :

  1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
  2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Justification: Statement 1 is ambiguous and debatable.

Statement 1: Arguments that Governor appoints the Chief Secretary (CS) are:

  • An appointment order is:
    • Essentially an executive action published in the State gazette notification
    • It is officially taken in the name of the Governor as all executive actions of a State government ought to be.
  • He is the highest officer of the state and Governor should ideally be the appointing authority of the CS.
  • So, even if CM “de facto” appoints the Chief Secretary, “de jure” appointment is made by the Governor, which should make statement 1 correct.

http://himachal.nic.in/WriteReadData/personnel/pdfs/CSMar2012_A1b.pdf

But, clearly it’s CM who selects and appoints CS of his state.

We are going with Option A because, the given statement is not  ‘incorrect’ per se (He selects or not, he does appoint CS) If there was absolutely NO ROLE involved from the Governor, the statement would be definitely incorrect.

Statement 2: There is no fixed tenure for the post of Chief Secretary. In this context, the Administrative Reforms Commission, in its report on State Administration in 1969, had recommended that a Chief Secretary should have a minimum tenure of three to four years.

Source: Indian Public Administration: Institutions and Issues http://tinyurl.com/hozxoma

2017:

Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity:-

(a)the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

(b)the methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(c)a superior individual with dynamism and vision.

(d)a band on dedicated party workers.

ANS:A

The object of government according to Mill’s views, being the attainment of values and virtues in men , their self-development, it is essential that the government should be of those whose self development is being sought. This is only possible if the people participate in the making and working of their government or the government is truly representative.

 

‘Virtue and intelligence should become genuine attributes of character in a citizen…..and then through participation , people at large , would be able to control the rulers by influencing the character and direction of public policy’.

2018:

 

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

 

(a)If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b)If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(c)If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.

(d)If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

ANS:B

2020:

  1. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

(a) The final goal of a stateless society

(b) Class struggle

(c) Abolition of private property

(d) Economic determinism

Answer: A

2020:

In the context of India which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for Bureaucracy?

(a) An agency for widening the scope for parliamentary democracy

(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism

(c) An agency for facilitating the political stability and economic growth

(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

Answer: D


20.MISCLLENOUS:

2017:

Which one of the following is not a feature to Indian federalism?

 

(a)There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b)Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

(c)The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

(d)It is the result of an agreement among the federating units

ANS:D

The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. It contains all the usual features of a federation, viz., two government, division of powers, written Constitution, super-macy of Constitution, rigidity of Constitution, independent judiciary and bicameralism.

 

Moreover, the term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Article 1, on the other hand, describes India as a ‘Union of States’ which implies two things: one, Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation.

 

 

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